USMLE PRACTICE QUESTION OF THE WEEK

Question for September 12, 2025

A 65-year-old man presents with gradually worsening fatigue, exertional dyspnea, and palpitations over 2 months. He has a history of hypertension and chronic kidney disease. Physical examination reveals an irregularly irregular pulse and no murmurs. ECG shows an absence of P waves and irregularly spaced QRS complexes.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's arrhythmia?

Correct Answer:

A. Atrial dilation secondary to systemic hypertension

Correct Answer Explanation

This patient's irregularly irregular rhythm, absent P waves, and known hypertension are consistent with atrial fibrillation, often triggered by atrial dilation secondary to systemic hypertension or structural heart disease.

Why These Are Incorrect:

  • B. Ventricular automaticity causes ventricular arrhythmias, not atrial fibrillation.
  • C. PE causes sinus tachycardia or right heart strain patterns, not classic atrial fibrillation presentation.
  • D. SA node dysfunction causes bradyarrhythmia, not chaotic atrial activity.
  • E. Thyrotoxicosis can cause AF but this patient lacks hyperthyroid symptoms.